THE MISUSE OF THE WORDS, “ALL”, “EVERY”, “WHOSOEVER’, ETC.
By: Arnold Kennedy
Great stress is placed by preachers upon the words, “all”, “every” and “whosoever” in verses
such as, “Go ye into all the world”, “Preach the Gospel to every creature” and so on. These present a false application of Scripture simply because such words and phrases are wrongly used. This misuse of these words has to be considered.
This false application contradicts Jesus’ statement and instruction to His disciples:
Matt. 15:24, “But He answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel”, and
Matt. 10:6 “Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel”
Because of this contradiction we need to find out why this appears to be so, and why the
popular interpretation about going to all races contradicts this statement and this command of Jesus.
There are different words translated as “all”, “every” etc. in both Hebrew and Greek, and so we need to investigate those that are misused to promote forms of universalism. In the New Testament, the Greek word holos is used as “the whole”, whereas the more frequently used word pas is used to indicate “a part” as being all of either a greater or a lesser part. It is the making of pas to have the same meaning as holos that causes the error. Where translators have so often translated pas as “all”, “every” or “whosoever”, it means “all of that part”, or “every one of that part”, or “whosoever of that part”. The word, “whosoever” is frequently translated from the word pas that is also translated as “all”. We will see that any untaught person who says, “Where my Bible says “whosoever will may come”, it means “any person of any race”, that person is either untaught or is misled. So we have to answer the main question, “does “all” usually mean “all of everything” or “all of that part being spoken about only”.
Does “all the world” mean the people in the entire planet, or just all of those people in that part of the planet being spoken about? We will see that there is a weight of Scripture that shows that words such as “all” are strictly confined to “all” of each context only. In simple terms, “all the world” is better put as, “all that world”, thus excluding every other world = kosmos.
The words for “all”, “every”, “whosoever” etc. are often singular, NOT plural. Thus they refer to: “all” the one [group], or “the whole” of the class, or “the entire” of the class.
To grasp the use of this particular “all” in Greek and Hebrew, consider: Deut 28:10:
“And ALL the peoples of the earth shall see that thou art called by the name of Yahweh, and they shall be afraid of you”.
Here, “all the peoples of the earth” does NOT include Israel. In the same way, “go ye into all the world” is NOT inclusive of every race. Failure to understand this is the source of error in the modern popular evangelical teaching. Because of the importance of this matter, any person seeking truth can look through a concordance (Young’s is easiest) to satisfy
themselves as to the right application of this word “pas” that is translated as “all” etc..
Some examples are given further on to show how to do this.
Jesus says that it is not given for everyone to hear or to understand. Speaking to His disciples about the Edomite leadership of the Judaean nation He said, "Because it is given to you to
understand the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given"-[Matt. 13:1 1 ].
Immediately we have just one exception like this, then "every" and "all" cannot include that
exception, or the other exceptions. If an exception is made about the Edomites who cannot find repentance, or of those born as tares about which Jesus said, "Leave them alone", then these cannot be part of the "all" being addressed. Jesus did not preach to certain peoples, as we have seen. Jesus said He was sent to Israel and to save "His people" from their sins. Are we to be wiser than Jesus?
When we consider the volume of Scriptures detailing the exclusiveness of Israel, if we had no
mind-set or previous pre-conditioning, we would have to agree to the following:
1.They are all consistent statements of fact, [not inferences].
2.They all relate to Israel alone, as a race, no other race being included.
3.Israel alone is God's inheritance, as is stated.
4.There is no conflict about redemption applying to Israel alone.
5.That certain covenants and promises referred to were made only with Israel.
6.That Israel is a holy, i.e. set-apart, race -[What is commonly called The Chosen Race].
7.That the Statutes [choq] and the Judgements [mishpat] were given to Israel alone as a
8.That the word "Jews" is not mentioned in any of these Scriptures.
9.That there are different 'seeds", and that Abraham's seed is genetic.
10.That none of these Scriptures can be 'spiritualized'. If we come to this conclusion about a unique Israel racially, there will immediately be a dilemma between:
[a] What the Scripture teaches in direct statements showing the exclusiveness of Israel through both Testaments.
[b] What is inferred from indirect verses as used by universalists. Universalists may use what
appear to be direct statements, but there are certain words that have been given new meanings and tenses. Sometimes completely wrong and deceptive meanings have been placed on words and some of these have become accepted modern teachings.
To these manufactured word meanings, “types” are added to fit the interpretation. This is the common way of teaching, but this is not teaching that is based upon the Cornerstone or the given foundation of the Law, the Psalms and the Prophets -(Eph. 2:20).
[c] What we think we see manifest in terms of Christian experience in other races- Both psychology and deliverance from demonic activity, and protection whilst other races are amongst Israel, have application here. But, redemption can only apply to Israel.
Now we can look further into some individual verses, and words in those verses.
As said above, Mark 16:15 is misused in that it appears to be saying that the Gospel is for
every race. Which “world” were the disciples to go into? This is a fair question. When the
disciples were sent to the lost sheep of the House OF ISRAEL, to whom and to which “world” were they sent? When Jesus said in Matthew 15:24: I am not sent BUT unto the lost sheep of the House of Israel, to what race was He sent?
Are we to say Jesus was wrong and that He was sent to every race? Are we to say Jesus was wrong in sending His disciples only to Israelites? If they were told go ye into all the world, why did they not go to the Negroes, the Chinese or the Indians? Why did they choose only one direction and proceeded to where the Children of Israel were? The location of the House of Israel at that time can be easily established historically. Matt 11:1 ...he departed thence to preach in their [the disciples’] cities.
Matt 10:5-7 Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. And as ye go, preach (proclaim), saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.
The disciples were instructed specifically not to go to certain peoples. The disciples of Jesus went out from Galilee knowing exactly where to find these “lost” sheep. They were not so “lost” that they could not be found!
“ALL”, “EVERY ONE”, “WHO-SO-EVER”, ETC.
Consider again these two verses:
John 3:16 God so loved the world ...
Mark 16:15 Go ye into all the world ...
Such verses are the basis of the thought that the go and preach the gospel to every creature
of Mark 16:15 refers to going to every person of every race on earth. Let us consider some of the words in these verses.
Preach or kerusso means to proclaim, or to announce good news like a town crier. It does
not mean “to make disciples” or “to evangelise”, as many teach. But
where were they to make their proclamations? Was it to everyone of every race? Let us look at every creature.
The Greek word ktisis is given by: Strong G2936-7 as “original formation, building, creature, and ordinance”.
Vine’s Dictionary of New Testament Words: “Ktizo is used among the Greeks to mean the
foundation of a place, a city, or a colony ... It is a significant confirmation of Rom 1:20,21 that in all non-Christian Greek literature these words (ktizo and its derivatives) are never used by Greeks to convey the idea of a Creator or of a creative act by any of their gods. The words are confined by them to the acts of human beings.
This is the creature [or rather, creation] of Mark 16:15. The word ktisis in the Greek is used
to indicate the product of human building or formation.
In this context it refers to a village, or place where people live. A ktisisis built by man, not God.
The disciples were to go specifically to the places or the villages or places where the Israelites lived.
Matt 10:23 Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, til the Son of Man be come.
We cannot make “the cities of Israel” mean the cities of every race. Note here that Jesus is
speaking of the time of the end.
What is the area of proclamation? Is it not all the world of Israel?
What were they proclaiming? Was it not the Gospel of the Kingdom?
The Kingdom is what Jesus and John the Baptist came proclaiming repent: for the kingdom of
heaven is at hand. Who proclaims either of these today?
It is impossible to believe and teach both the modern universal gospel to all races and the exclusive Kingdom of Heaven at the same time.
Jesus confines all the world to the cities of Israel! In other words, this is what is to be proclaimed in the dwellings or places where the Israelites live right up to the end of the age.
ARE “ALL” and “EVERY” LIMITED EXPRESSIONS?
Does “all” usually mean “all of everything” or “all of that part being spoken about”?
Does all the world mean all the planet, or just all of that part of the planet being spoken about.
A look through Young’s Analytical Concordance will show how these words are used. This will give an indication without having to go into the Greek. Being certain on this topic is well worth the time involved researching lexicons to determine the correct meanings of the words used.
To grasp the use of all in Greek and Hebrew, consider Deut 28:10, “ and all the people of
the earth shall see that thou art called by the name of Yahweh, and they shall be afraid of Thee”.
Here, all the peoples of the earth does NOT include Israel. In the same way, go ye into all the
world is NOT inclusive of every race. Failure to understand this is the source of error in the modern popular teaching. Jesus says that it is not given for everyone to hear or to understand. Immediately we have just one exception, then “every” and “all” cannot include that exception, or the other exceptions. If an exception is made about the Edomites who cannot find repentance, or of those Jesus said, leave them alone, then these cannot be part of the “all” being addressed. Jesus did not proclaim to certain peoples, as we have seen. Jesus said He was sent to Israel to save His people from their sins. Are we to be wiser than Jesus?!
“ALL THE ENDS OF THE Earth”
Isaiah 45:22 “Look unto Me and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth”.
At first glance, this appears to have a universal meaning. The word translated as the earth is
the Hebrew word “erets” which is mostly translated as “country” or “earth” in the sense of a
localized area or that earth belonging to a people [for example, the land, or earth, of Israel]. In
context, this whole chapter is about Israel and no other. It certainly is not used in the generalized sense as the universalists who try to prove the expression the ends of the earth
means every race or place on Earth.
“IN THEE SHALL ALL NATIONS BE BLESSED” Gal 3:7-9
Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham. And the scripture foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached (proclaimed) before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, in thee shall all nations be blessed. So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.
This verse together with and the verses below, are favored by universalists because they seem to present a universal gospel for all races. “Nations” is sometimes translated emotively as “Heathen” to try to add weight to the universal argument.
To understand any passage of Scripture it is necessary to look at it as a whole by going back to the prophecy behind it to see what it is fulfilling.
[a] To Abraham: Gen 12:2,3 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: and I will bless them that bless thee, and will curse him that curseth thee, and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.
Gen 18:18 Seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and a mighty nation, and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him?
Gen 22:18 And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed My voice.
[b] To Isaac:
[c] To Jacob: Gen 28:14 And thy seed shall be as the dust of the earth, and thou shalt spread abroad to the west, and to the east, and to the north, and to the south: and in thee and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed.
[d] To Jabob/Israel in the Psalms: Psalm 22:27 All the ends of the world shall remember and turn unto Yahweh: and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before thee.
Here are six important verses that are used to support the doctrine of universal racial salvation.
Indeed, they do appear to give valid support on the surface. But do they actually say what the
religious translators make them say? Is this the problem here? Let us look further.
THE “FAMILIES OF THE EARTH” BEING BLESSED IN ABRAHAM
The major source of error in these blessing passages is what we mean by certain words. We
have different words translated as earth and the ground countries and the land, as also occurs with the words translated nations, families and kindreds.
Although an extensive technical Hebrew language exposition is beyond the scope of this paper, there are things that need to be pointed out.
Originally Abraham was told to go from his father’s house unto an eretz that God would show him. If eretz here is the whole Earth, then Abraham must have gone to another planet!
Abraham was told all The ‘Earth’ which thou seeth, I will give thee. He was told to arise and walk through the earth. Did he walk across the whole globe? So we have to ask if this ‘earth’ is the whole earth or the Promised Land. It is not all the ‘eretzs of all the races on earth. Abraham was told to get himself out of his present earth and to go to THE earth. There are many references that give confirmation of the meaning.
THE earth does not mean the whole globe, but rather that portion belonging to the particular
area or person under consideration.
Contrary to popular presentation, we must note that in Genesis 12:3, the ‘them’ in “I will bless them” is plural, whereas the ‘him’ in I will curse him is singular. The Hebrew allows for two
possible translations of be blessed, namely:
 “May be blessed in, or by, association with thee”, and
 “May bless themselves” [as the RV footnote says].
Some awkward questions could be posed here if it was to be taken that all nations had the meaning of “every race on earth”:
1. If those who curse Abraham are cursed, how could those so cursed be part of all nations
which were to be blessed?
2. Were the Egyptians blessed or cursed through Israel’s presence during their captivity and
also in the Exodus?
3. When the Children of Israel went into the Promised Land, they were told to exterminate all
the Canaanite nations. Was not that an unusual way of blessing the Canaanites?
After all, they were supposed to be part of all nations. Likewise Amalek was to be exterminated.
4.In Deut 23:6, God commanded Israel that they should not seek the peace or the prosperity of
Ezra 9:12 indicates similar treatment of the non-Israelites in the land. This is hardly a blessing on those nations, is it?
5. When The House of Judah was in captivity in Babylon, is there any evidence of Israel being
a blessing to Babylon?
6. When the House of Israel was in captivity in Assyria, did this make the Assyrians blossom?
7. In prophecy why are all the forecasts concerning non-Israel nations always detailing them as being servants to Israel and for them to perish if they refuse this destiny? This is so right up to the end of the age.
The promise to Abraham was to “ALL” nations without any exceptions. “All” cannot include those who are cursed and those God says that He hates. Hence “all” means all the nations of Israel.
Throughout Scripture, Israel was to dwell alone and shall not be reckoned among the nations
[Num 23:9]. Prophecy sustains this to the end.
Daniel 7:27 And the kingdom and dominion, and the greatness of the kingdom under the
whole heaven, shall be given to the people of the saints of the most High, whose kingdom is
an everlasting kingdom, and all dominions shall serve him.
Isaiah 60:12 For the nation and kingdom that will not serve thee shall perish; yea, those
nations shall be utterly wasted.
Zech 14:16,17 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which
came up against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, Yahweh
of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles. And it shall be that whoso will not come up of all the families of the earth unto Jerusalem to worship the King, Yahweh of hosts, even upon them shall be no rain.
Israel and Judah were scattered among
all nations, but are these other nations to be blessed? Jeremiah does not agree.
Jer 30:11 ... though I make a full end of all nations whither I have scattered thee, yet I will not make a full end of thee ...
Jeremiah repeats this in Jer 46:28, addressing this to Jacob. In all these Scriptures we can see the unique place of Israel among the other nations. This continues after Jesus returns and Israel reigns with God over the other nations. Finally there will be no more death. What a blessing! The blessing is either given by this seed, or by the Act of God.
Quoting Lloyd Palmer of the USA on these words:
“Whosoever” is an objective pronoun. According to the Oxford English Dictionary, “objective” means: “dealing with outward things or exhibiting facts uncolored by feelings or
opinions; not subjective.”
As an adjective, “whosoever” is used to modify and convey a, “fair, impartial, equitable, neutral, open-minded and unprejudiced” meaning to a noun.
In contrast, a subjective pronoun, according to Oxford, means: (of art, literature, written
history, a person’s view, etc) “proceeding from personal idiosyncrasy or individuality; not
impartial or literal.”
Now that we have examined the differences in “objective” and “subjective,” which one of the two is in harmony with Scripture?
Jesus told His disciples, “Ye have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you and ordained you...”
(John 15:16). This is a subjective statement, and not an objective one. This becomes a matter
of doctrine. Do you follow the “people choosing God” notion, or do you surrender to the scriptural “people chosen of God” doctrine? Your answer will determine whether you think the word “whosoever”applies to anyone who confesses Christ (the people choosing God notion), or whether you embrace the revealed, “people chosen of God doctrine.”
Allow me to ask this question: If all that a person has to do is “confess” Jesus as his personal
Saviour, which is the doctrine of most Judeo-Christian churches, then why did Jesus say these words:
“Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? And in thy name have cast out devils? And in thy name done many wonderful works? And then I will profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.”(Matt.7:21-23)
These words are strong ones, but they reveal that not every one who “confesses” Christ will be saved!
Universalists love to quote John 3:15-16 to claim that “whosoever” as it is used in these
verses, applies to all ethnic groups. When we look up the Greek word that “whosoever” was
translated from, we discover something unusual.
The word is No. 3588 in Strong’s Greek Dictionary. It is actually three words in Greek: “ho, he, to, in all their inflection; the definite article; the (sometimes to be supplied, at others, omitted in English idiom): the, this, that,one,he, she, it,etc.” The list is all subjective words. None of
the words could be considered as objective.
In other words, “he”, “she”, and “it”, etc, are subjective pronouns. Subjective pronouns are
exclusive. Therefore, the catch-all word “whosoever” is a misleading word to use, because it totally changes the inflection. I suggest that a corrected phrase be used in place of the word “whosoever.” The phrase “those who” doesn’t destroy the “people chosen of God” doctrine of the Bible.
For example, lets delete “whosoever” and apply “those who” in those two verses of John 3:15-16: “That those who believe in Him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that those who believe in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
Now it becomes far less inclusive when properly translated and removes the concept that
Jesus was speaking generally as many are inclined to see. So the next time you read Scripture and come upon the word “whosoever,” try substituting “those who” and see if it doesn’t make for better Bible exegesis. When you understand the “people chosen of God” doctrine, you will also comprehend that our English translators choice of “whosoever’ was a bad choice that led to the Universalist’s mistaken assumption that Jesus was speaking to all groups on an equal basis”.
EXAMPLES WHERE WE FIND THE WORD “ALL” THAT ARE NOT ALL INCLUSIVE.
Matt. 2:3 When Herod the king had heard these things, he was troubled, and ALL Jerusalem with him. And when he had gathered ALL the chief priests and scribes of the people together, he demanded of them where Christ should be born.
The word “all” is found twice in this passage, and “all Jerusalem” has the context of “all the chief priests and scribes”. King Herod would not be demanding where the Christ would be born of a woman giving birth, neither would such a woman be troubled. Thus it does not include “all” of the other people in the city, and to say that every person in every situation was troubled would obviously be not true.
Matt. 3:5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and ALL Judaea, and ALL the region round about Jordan, And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.
Again the word “all” appears twice. Very obviously John the Baptist could not have baptized every person in Jerusalem, or indeed every person in “all Judaea”. Thus “all” refers to that part who came from those locations, and not anyone else who stayed home. Also, it did not include the High Priest and the Roman garrison.
Matt. 27:24 When Pilate saw that he could prevail nothing, but that rather a tumult was made, he took water, and washed his hands before the multitude, saying, I am innocent of
the blood of this just person:see ye to it. Then answered ALL the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children.
Perceptibly, “all the people” means that part of the people who were present before Pilate, and does not include anyone else.
Mark 7:14 And when He had called all the people unto Him, He said unto them, Hearken unto Me EVERYONE of you, and understand:
Here, “all the people” does not include the Scribes and Pharisees Jesus had been talking to
immediately before this, and “all” has the meaning of all those others then present, as does “everyone of you”.
Acts 3:9, And ALL THE PEOPLE saw him walking and praising God: And they knew that it was he which sat for alms at the Beautiful gate of the temple: and they were filled with wonder and amazement at that which had happened unto him. And as the lame man which was healed held Peter and John,
ALL THE PEOPLE ran together unto them in the porch that is called Solomon’s, greatly wondering.
Again, “all the people” that occurs twice in this passage can only refer to that part of “all the
people" who were present.
There is a Scripture in Rev. 13:7, which is taken totally out of context, and used by many
preachers to deceive mankind, and bring great fear upon them. That verse says (speaking of the anti-christ), "
And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over ALL KINDREDS AND TONGUES, AND NATIONS."
And the next verse says, "And ALL that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the Book of Life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world".
Thus “all kindreds” does not include those whose names are written in the Book of Life. False preachers point to the word "all" in verse 7, and again in verse 8, without giving consideration to the context itself. There are many, many times throughout the Bible when the word "all" is put for "a part", even in the same way that we use the word in our every day life. Often we use terms such as "everybody in town was at the meeting", or "the water was all
over the place", and so forth.
In Genesis. 6, when God was talking about bringing a flood upon the Earth in verse 13, God
said, "The end of ALL FLESH is come before Me." Then in verse 17, God said, "In Genesis 6:17, “
And, behold, I, even I, do bring a flood of waters upon the earth, to destroy ALL FLESH, wherein is the breath of life, from under heaven; and EVERYTHING that is in the earth shall die”, we know that Noah did not die as part of “all flesh”. Again, "all" is being used with the meaning of “a part” or “the greater part.
In Joshua 6:21, “And they utterly destroyed ALL THAT WAS IN THE CITY, both man and
woman, young and old, and ox, and sheep, and ass, with the edge of the sword”, we know that Rahab was not part of “all” that was destroyed in that city.
In 1 Kings 11:16, “For six months did Joab remain there with all Israel, until he had cut off EVERY MALE in Edom:) That Hadad fled, he and certain Edomites of his father’s servants with him, to go into Egypt; Hadad being yet a little child”, did “every male” include male children? Did “every male” include those Edomites who fled? If the entire Edomite male population on earth had been slain, how could Edomites be found after this?
In Luke 2:1, “And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar
Augustus, that ALL THE WORLD should be taxed. (And this taxing was first made when Cyrenius was governor of Syria.) And ALL went to be taxed, every one into his own city”, we can see that “all the world” has the meaning of “all that world”. This is how “all the world” is used in “Go ye into all the (that) world and preach the Gospel”.
In Romans 1:8, “First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is
spoken of throughout THE WHOLE WORLD”, do we believe that “the whole world” included the Chinese, the Maoris and the Aztecs?
In Rom. 10:18, “I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into ALL THE EARTH, and their words unto THE ENDS OF THE WORLD. But I say, Did not Israel know”?,
In Col. 1:23, “If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from
the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached TO EVERY CREATURE WHICH IS UNDER HEAVEN”, could “every creature under heaven” be extended beyond those to whom Paul preached?
These are just a sample of verses that show how Scripture uses phrases, and if we use them
otherwise, we must come to wrong conclusions. These wrong conclusions then lead on wrong
evangelism and also to the interpretation of prophecy. Let us consider some of these.
If those preachers who are telling us that the antichrist will rule all nations, and kindreds upon the face of the Earth, if they are not fear-mongering, then why do they not put the same
emphasis on Dan. 11:41, where it is speaking of the antichrist at the height of his power and glory.
There it says that antichrist will overthrow many countries, then it says, "But these shall escape out of his hand, even Edom, and Moab, and chief of the children of Ammon." If the same people were occupying the same territory, this would be modern day Jordan, and some territory close by. So we must ask, if the antichrist at the time is going to have his throne in
Jerusalem, and will not be able to get control of Jordan, which is just next door, and the area around about, why should we believe that he will rule the whole Earth? But if this is not the present application, “all nations” does not include those that escape.
Also, in Matthew 24, in answer to one of the three questions Jesus was asked, He spoke of
that future time when the antichrist will be at the height of his glory, and ruling all that he will be able to rule. And if there is not going to be any place on Earth that the anti-christ will not rule, then why did Jesus say, "Let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains", verse 16? Why flee if there is no place to go to? And why would Jesus bother to tell the people to flee, if the antichrist is going to be ruling every foot of land? In that case, there would be no place to go.
Also, the prophet, Isaiah, gets in on this subject, and confirms the scripture in Dan. 11:41.
In Isaiah 16:1-4, we are told that those fleeing Israelites, mentioned in Matthew 24:16, will go to Moab, and will be hidden in Moab until the end of the age when Jesus Christ will come, and the antichrist will be consumed out of the land. Is it not a fair question to ask, that since the fleeing Israelites will be protected in Moab from the forces of the antichrist, is it not then a fair assumption that the antichrist will not be in charge in Moab, and especially since the scripture says that he will not be?
In the book of Dan. 2, that prophet was talking to Nebuchadnezzar, who was the king of
Babylon at that time, and Daniel said to him in verse 38, "And wheresoever the children of men dwell, the beasts of the field, and the fowls of the Heaven hath He given unto thy hand, and hath made thee ruler over them all."
So it must be asked if Nebuchadnezzar ruled America? Did he rule Japan? And the rest of the world? The answer of course is that he did not. He ruled only in the Middle East, and yet he was spoken of as "ruler over them all".
Then Dan. 2:39, it speaks of the third kingdom of brass (which was the Grecian Empire), and it says, "that it would bear rule over all the earth". So again, did the Grecian Empire cover the
whole earth, as we know it today, or just the Middle East? If your answer is the Middle East, you are right. Yet, the same term was used of that kingdom in Dan. 2:39, as is used of the antichrist in Rev. 13:7&8. So, neither one did, nor will, rule every nation on earth.
If a person would read these prophetic passages, and try to apply the same rule as some do
on Rev. 13:7-8, we would have a big, big mess, and we would have contradiction after contradiction in the Bible.
As pointed out earlier, Jesus says that it is not given for everyone to hear or to understand. Speaking to His disciples about the Edomite leadership of the Judaean nation He said, “Because it is given unto you to understand the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but
to them it is not given”-[Matt.13:11].
How then would Jesus send us to people who cannot “hear”? How could they be converted if
“faith comes by hearing” as we are told? Immediately we have just one exception like this, then “every”, “all” and “whosoever” cannot include that exception, or the other exceptions. If an exception is made about the Edomites who cannot find repentance, or of those born as tares about which Jesus said, “Leave them alone”, then these cannot be part
of the “all” being addressed.
Jesus did not address certain peoples, as we have seen. Jesus said He was sent to Israel and to save “His people” from their sins. That is, they were “His people” before they were saved. Therefore the command, “Go ye into all the world” refers to all that part of the world who can hear and are given the ability to understand the mysteries of the Kingdom of Heaven. Thus we can see that:
Matt. 15:24, “But He answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel”, and
Matt. 10:6 “Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” ....are confined to going to one particular people only.
Thus the popular misuse of the words, “all”, “every” and “whosoever” does not promote the Gospel of the Kingdom of Heaven over Israel that is the real “Great Commission”!
Mat 4:17 From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of
Heaven is at hand.
Mat 10:6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. And as ye go, preach,
saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand.
More works by Arnold Kennedy can be found at www.israelelect/reference/ArnoldKennedy
Below are some more examples that show ALL is NOT a Universal term.
ALL SHALL BE SAVED ?
"But Pastor Davis... God would have all men to be saved." Is that really true? Who is the Word referring to when it says "all men" in so many places? Can you resolve this list of 42 "contradictions" of the Bible?
Luke 2:10- "Behold I bring you good tidings of great joy, that shall be to ALL PEOPLE."
Matthew 1:21- "And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shall call his name Jesus, for he shall save HIS PEOPLE (not all people) from their sins:"
I Timothy 4:10- "We trust in the living God, who is the Savior of ALL MEN, specially those that (now) believe."
Matthew 1: 1-18- "The book of the generation (race or kindred) of Jesus Christ... Abraham; Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Jesus..."
I Cor. 15:22- "For as in Adam ALL die, even so in Christ shall ALL be made alive; but every man in his own order..."
Matthew 1:23- "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is. God with US." (The peoples of the generations of Jesus Christ through David and Jacob-Israeli)
I Timothy 2:3-4- "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God OUR Saviour, who would have ALL MEN to be saved, and come into the knowledge of the truth."
Matthew 2:6- "And thou Bethlehem, in the land of Judea, art not the least among the princes of Judah, for out of thee shall come a Governor, that shall rule MY PEOPLE Israel."
Romans 5:18- "...judgment came upon ALL Men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one, the free gift came upon ALL MEN unto justification of life."
Luke 1:33- "And he shall reign over the House of Jacob forever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end."
Titus 2:11- "The grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to ALL MEN."
Luke 1:68- "Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed HIS PEOPLE."
John 12:32- "And I, if I be lifted up from earth, will draw ALL MEN unto me."
Luke 1:69- "And hath raised up a horn of salvation for US in the house of his servant David."
II Corinthians 5:15- "He died for ALL."
Luke 1:76, 77- "And thou, child (John the Baptist) ...to give knowledge of salvation unto HIS PEOPLE, by the remission of THEIR SINS:"
I Timothy 2:6- "Christ Jesus, who gave himself a ransom for ALL, to be testified to in due time."
Matthew 3:7- "But when he (John the Baptist) saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees had come to his baptism, he said unto them, ...who warned you of the wrath to come?"
II Peter 3:9- "The Lord is not slack concerning his promise (to Israel)...not willing that ANY should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance."
Matthew 10:5-6- "And these twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them saying, Go NOT into the way of the nations, and into ANY city of the Samaritans ENTER YE NOT, but rather to the loft sheep of THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL."
Romans 11:32- "God hath concluded them ALL in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon All."
Luke 19:27- "But those mine enemies, which would not that I should rule over them, bring hither (to Jerusalem) and slay them before me."
John 3:16- "For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son, that WHOSOEVER believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
John 8:43,44- "Why do ye not understand my speech? Even because YE CANNOT HEAR MY WORD. Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was the murderer from the beginning and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him:"
Hebrews 2:9- "But we see Jesus, who ...by the Grace of God should taste death for EVERY MAN."
Matthew 26:28- "For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for MANY (not ALL) for the remission of sins."
John 1:9- "That was the true Light, which lighteth EVER: MAN that cometh into the world."
Mark 4:11,12- "And he said unto them, Unto YOU is given to know the mystery of the Kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: that seeing they see and not perceive; and hearing they may hear and may not understand; lest at any time they should be converted and their sins should be forgiven them."
I John 2:22- "He is the propitiation for OUR sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the WHOLE WORLD."
Matthew 15:22,23- "And behold, a WOMAN OF CANAAN came out of the same coasts, and cried unto him saying, Have mercy on me, O Lord, thou son of David; my daughter is grievously vexed with a devil. BUT HE ANSWERED HER NOT A WORD...."
John 8:12- "I am the light of THE WORLD."
Matthew 15:23,24- "And his disciples came and besought him, saying, SEND HER AWAY; for she crieth after us. But he answered and said, I am NOT sent but unto the lost sheep of the House of Israel."
John 4:42- "We know this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of THE WORLD."
Matthew 15:25- "Then came she and worshipped him, saying, Lord help me. But he answered and said, It is NOT meet (lawful or proper) to take from the children's bread and cast it to dogs (non-Israelites)."
Mark 16:15- "Go ye into ALL THE WORLD and preach the Gospel to EVERY CREATURE."
Matthew 15:27,28- "And she said, TRUTH LORD: yet the dogs eat the crumbs from the master's table. Then Jesus answered her and said unto her, Oh woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour." (It does not say that she and her daughter were saved from that very hour as some writers suggest...)
Joel 2:28- "I will pour out my Spirit upon ALL FLESH."
Amos 3:2- "YOU ONLY have I known (Heb. yada = acknowledged, respected recognized) of all the families of the earth."
John 1:29- "Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the WORLD."
John 6:37- "ALL THAT THE FATHER GIVETH ME shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out..."
Isaiah 45:22- "Look to me, and be ye saved, ALL THE ENDS OF THE EARTH."
I Peter 2:9- "But ye are a chosen generation (genos meaning offspring, kind, kindred, stock, race), royal priesthood, an holy nation (ethnos meaning race, tribe, and from where every word translated "gentile" comes from), a peculiar (peripoiesis, meaning purchased, acquired, bought, possessed and/or owned, specifically guarded and hedged about and bestowed upon) people; THAT YE shall show forth the praises of him who hath called YOU out of darkness into his marvelous light."
Every one of the lightly printed verses were sent to me in letters trying to prove that Christ died for every man or all the world, meaning peoples of the earth. I could go on with this set of apparently contradictory statements from the inerrant Word of God for another ten pages. These are 42 verses, with 21 of them seeming to suggest an intent on the part of Almighty God and our Saviour Jesus Christ to save ail mankind. Every Creature, All Men, All Flesh, and all the families of the earth, seems plain and clear enough. Then there are 21 verses from the same Bible authors, and often from Christ's own lips, that The Plan of Salvation was and is highly restricted and specifically limited to only certain people. For whom then, did Christ intend to die? Whose sins did Christ actually pay for? What peculiar people are bought with a price? Who are the guarded, the hedged about, and the bestowed upon? People write me stating that they read the Bible every day. Wonderful! Then who among them can solve the riddle of the apparent contradictions in just these 42 verses?
Most of my fundamentalist friends, who say that they believe the Bible "from cover to cover including the cover," are still content to ignore these alleged contradictions and urge their minister to preach to the hundreds in his congregation on the theme, "Christ died for YOU." While he may think that he is "winning souls," the fact of the matter is that this may not be a truthful statement at all. Who are the chosen kindred, off-spring and stock that make up the holy nation to be reconciled to God? For whom was Christ The Substitute? Did He go to the Cross for the betrayers Esau or Judas the Canaanite? Deeper still, did Christ accomplish His Objective or did He fall far short, since obviously the vast majority of mankind never has been saved. The answer to these questions is part of the solution to that riddle.
Without- apology, I must insist that Christ accomplished exactly, and completely, what He intended! Most ministers today insult the Gospel of Christ by teaching that there is a distinction and a difference between what Christ did in dying for all mankind, and what he accomplished with such a tiny minority actually being saved through His Sacrifice. They are preaching, and I do not know how to state it more delicately, that percentage wise, Christ's Death was an abysmal failure! He never got what He wanted accomplished: Brother and Sister, that is pure nonsense!
I shudder when I happen to hear this preaching over the radio or on television which teaches, in effect, that Christ not only willingly shed His Blood, but He inadvertently spilled most of it. They preach that he intended to save all mankind, but 99% were never saved by Him. So, our inept Saviour shed 1% of His Blood for the saved, and spilled 99% of it for the unsaved. What kind of an anti-Christ "gospel" is that?
Almost every church in America today, if you will examine its doctrine carefully, preaches this major error. Such teaching cannot be found in the words of such great evangelists of the past such as George Whitfield and Charles H. Spurgeon. Never once did they preach or write the phrase, "Christ died for you." It is simply not Scriptural, for in the case of the vast majority of mankind, and a hefty minority of Americans, it is not true. If Christ's Sacrifice actually took away the penalty of Every Man's sins, then Every Man is saved. Such a conclusion is obviously not true.
How then can we begin to resolve this riddle? It is not enough to read the Bible, it must be studied. Here is a little insight to get us started. Every one of the authors of the books of the Bible were descended from a peculiar kindred and stock. They were all of the same race, without exception. Wouldn't you find that an amazing coincidence, if the Bible message was intended for all mankind? The genealogies of these people are repeated again and I again almost to the point of redundancy. The writers of the New Testament continue to repeat these genealogies so that even a "New Testament Christian" is without excuse as to what kindred and stock of people Christ cane to seek and to save, and which peoples of the earth His Specific Mission was to ignore and avoid wherever possible.
Not only were the Old Testament authors of the same kindred and race, but every one of them directed his specific prophecies and instructions to only that specific kindred of peoples. There is not the first exception. You will look in vain to find any suggestion or authorization that this Israelite kindred are to send missionaries or teach the truths of Almighty God to any of the heathen living around and among them. Quite the contrary, for Holy Writ is clear that God's Holy Nation was not to have anything whatever to do with these peoples, and marriage between them was strictly forbidden. Even where there seems to have been exceptions, as with Ruth, the "Moabitess," further investigation establishes that she was of the stock of Israel living in Moab. I live in Cherokee County, North Carolina, but I am not a Cherokee. The Old Testament ends with the instruction to look back to your fathers, and the New Testament begins with this reminder of the kindred relationship to this people of both Joseph and the Virgin Mary. Nowhere in the Old Testament, if studied in its context, will you find any such universal salvation being offered to EVERY MAN or to ALL PEOPLES. Why not, do you suppose?
First, read Genesis 4:16-24. It is the genealogy of Cain. In contrast, read Genesis 5. It is the genealogy or kindred of Adam. What is the first thing you notice? Cain is not listed as a son of Adam, but has his own kindred people. It is interesting to note that both Cain and Adam have an Enoch in their lineages, and these are different men, living years apart, and not to be confused one with the other. Lots of folks are fooled about the Enochs of the Bible, and their theology wanders off into oblivion. Stop reading this lesson and read the suggested texts above, or you may be quickly left behind. -: -
Second, read Genesis 3:15. Almighty God establishes for His Purposes, that there would be a perpetual hatred between the sons of Cain and the sons of Adam and the woman, Eve. If you have missed this one point, Scripture is going to be a mysterious, or even closed book to you. Scriptures further state that Cain's children were to be forever at enmity with Almighty God Himself. There was to be no reconciliation between them forever, and eventually, as the House of Esau, be wiped off the earth down to the very last man, woman and child.
Third, the point to remember here is that it would be Cain's children that would crucify His Son, the Prince Jesus Christ, as forecast from this earliest time in Scripture. Most Christians know this but their Thought-theology treats the historical and the racial facts of the Bible separately from the other spiritual teachings. This is their Grand Mistake.
So, as long as Cain's children are still living on the earth, and until the earth is cleansed of their wickedness, God's Spirit will not be poured out on All Flesh. Until then, known as the time of the burning of the Tares, Scripture is plain as to which flesh, and to what portion of the world's peoples, are included in the manifold Promises of God. From this, you have an idea which "whosoever" Jesus was talking about, and who are the Sheep of His Pasture, and who, John records in Chapter 10, are not His sheep [v.261.
Are you beginning to see that "rightly dividing the Word of God" includes as its basic and primary function the rightly dividing the peoples of the world? Contrary to the popular, humanistic and universalism salvation messages so common today, are you seeing that this is not the Plan of God at all, but a deliberate and cruel fraud upon God's People, as well as the non-Israel people?
Let's move on to another "division" among the world's peoples. This time, instead, of examining the line outside of Adam as Cain's children, we will see that there are divisions within the kinfolk of Adam. One of these was between the various children of Abraham, with his several wives. Only the line through Sarah and Isaac, according to Scripture, is to be the line of The Promise. Humanism insists that for God to show such adamant favoritism is grossly unfair: and seek to rectify His racism by offering Christ's Salvation to assorted mixed peoples of the earth.
Moving down a generation, we have the well-known pair of twins, Jacob and Esau. All Christians know this story well, for there are many who teach that Jacob, a major Forefather of Christ, was nothing more than a "rip-off artist", stealing the birthright heritage from his brother. Christian humanists actually feel sorry for Esau, and the conspiracy against him, by his brother and his own mother. Again, as with Cain and Abel, we have a set of twins who represent good and evil. There is no doubt that Esau's racial heritage was perfect. He was a kinsman of the men of The Promise. His problem can be summed up this way: He despised his Birthright. As a humanist, he thought his heritage and his kindred people relationship had no value or meaning whatever. Today, Esau would call such an idea "racist." He couldn't care less. His second problem was in his choice of wives. The story of his forbidden marriages is set forth in Genesis 28:6-9. Isaac, his father, forbade Esau from marrying the daughters of Canaan whom Isaac knew were evil. How would Isaac suspect that the daughters of Cancan were evil? Because he knew that they were of the kindred of Cain. It turned out that Isaac was right for from these wives there were produced a people called Esau-Edom. We will discuss this sordid bunch in later lessons of Star Wars, but for this study it is enough to refer, you to what the Lord God has to say about Esau-Edom. It is only two pages long by the Prophet Obadiah, one of the so-called minor prophets skillfully overlooked by modern Christian ministers. Esau's final outcome, in spite of the humanist's complaints about God's unfairness, can be stated in just two verses, 17 and 18. It is future prophecy. It has not happened yet. Christians are, even now, witnessing to Esau and Cain's Kin, hoping to get them "saved" so that they can go to heaven when they die. That is not the plan of God for this heathen people. Here is what God has to say about the Esau-Edom division of the sons of Adam:
"But upon mount Zion shall be deliverance, and there shall be holiness; and the House of Jacob shall possess their possessions. And the House of Jacob shaft be afire, and the House of Joseph shall be aflame, and the House of Esau for stubble, and they shall kindle them, and devour them, and there shall not be any remaining of the House of Esau; for the Lord hath spoken it."
The next division of Adam, which I will discuss in this Star Wars lesson is between Judah's two wives, Shuah and Tamar, and their two lines of children. The Bible is clear to me that Shuah was a Canaanite. I know that her racial lines are subject to an honest difference of opinion among scholars. (Genesis 38 and I Chronicles 2] I hold that Shuah was of Cain, and it is obvious that none of her line were of The Promise. Judah, not learning the sad lesson taught to his uncle Esau, had to learn his own personal lessons regarding interracial fornication (Scripture never says that he actually married the woman). The discreet point for this Bible study is that Shuah's first and second sons by Judah were, according to Scripture, wicked in the sight of God, and God slew them both. But, the third son, Shelah survived and produced a line of offspring. Hundreds of thousands of people came from this one half-breed Israelite, and they are causing all sorts of trouble on the earth today. Jesus Christ ran into these sons of Judah-Shuah, and with their wicked genes acting in full concert, they confronted Christ in John, Chapter 8. There are two clues to my position that Shuah was of Cain and that this anti-christ bunch were descended from Abraham, Judah-Shuah and Shelah. First, they state in verse 33, that they were never in bondage. If Shuah had been an Israelite, then their forefathers would have been in the Egyptian bondage. So, those Jews confronting Christ were not of Israel, but some other line. Do you understand that, my dear Christian readers? But how do we know that they are from the loins of Shulah? First, they claim that their Father is Abraham, and Christ does not deny that, but draws a clear distinction between the Seed of Abraham, and the Children of Abraham (v 37-39). Here is the second clue: While these Jews are of the Seed of Abraham, they state that they were not born of fornication. Here they were challenging the lawful genealogy of Christ by bringing up the Tamar matter, Judah's out-of-wedlock affair with this Israelite young widow. Their statement was a legal admission that they are not of the Judah-Tamar-David line of The Promise.
Some who have- read the rough draft of this lesson so as to help me prevent any errors, confusions, or double meanings, have challenged my statement that the woman Shuah, was of Cain. With the Jews' challenge regarding the Tamar fornication properly identifying them as being of Abraham and Judah, but also never in bondage, Jesus Himself ties these Jews right back to Cain as their father, the murderer from the beginning! So, we have identified the origins of the two lines of Jews on the earth today. One is of Cain, fathered by Satan, trying to steal the Birthright through Esau-Edom's Kindred. The second group of Jews is trying to claim the Judah Promise through Judah-Shuah and her son Shelah.
Nord - Lesson 8
-Nowhere is it stated that Satan and His Bands are going to be able to "get right with God." This Satanic seed, those whom Christ identified as being "of their father the Devil," are not going to be "saved" and that determination was made before the foundation of the world, and signed and sealed by the Word of God in Genesis, Chapter 3. Why bother to extend the Gospel to them? So, to further establish what we taught earlier, there is no way that all men can be saved, for Satan's seed are obviously excluded from those glorious ranks.
For more works by Nord Davis Jr. go to: https://israelect.com/reference/extra/StarWars/